Cloud Infographic: Big Data And Mobile Communications

Cloud Infographic: The CSC Cloud Usage Index

Reblogged from IntellecTSeed:

Reblogged from IntellecTSeed:

It means easy access to secure, inexpensive storage from anywhere. Cloud storage is practical; it will be used primarily for applications that don’t depend on high-speed, high-bandwidth connections to storage. So data sharing and data protection/data backup are the two most likely uses for cloud storage. Data backup and recovery applications typically also offer a disaster recovery option.

Features

• Web-based graphical user interface (GUI) that provides a single-pane or dashboard view showing such information as which backups were successful, where the files are located and how much space was consumed. Users also generally get basic reporting capabilities and can keep tabs on billing and costs.
• Efficiency and reliability
• Scalability
• Flexibility
• Improves recovery time for small data sets.
• Accessibility Not tied to a specific geographic location
• Can reduce costs associated with disaster recovery since a moderate degree of disaster recovery is also provided.
• The data is protected from local disasters, including fire, theft, floods, tornados and human errors by maintaining copies of files safely and securely off-site.
• Power, cooling, or physical maintenance requirements.
• Unlimited retention that the cloud makes possible with its unlimited, almost infinitely scalable capacity.
• Usage-based cost of cloud services is well suited for DR where the secondary infrastructure is parked and idling most of the time.
• Downtime
• Depending on the total capacity of data, the first full backup and/or full recovery of site data could prove to be too time-consuming and impactful on production systems.
• Network bandwidth over long distances will always cost significantly more than connections within the data center.
• Delay in access can significantly impact their performance.
• Impractical for Business applications: laws of physics, long-distance communications take longer, and hence cost more than shorter connections.
• Once you remove the data from your primary system, it gets deleted from the online backup as well.
• Security, bandwidth, connection availability and data recovery.
• Understanding the most graceful “exit strategy” for the service is just as important as vetting specific features. Termination or early-withdrawal fees, cancellation notification, and data extraction are just a few of the factors to be considered.
• Cloud storage is not a good choice for high-transaction databases or temporary storage.

Advantages

Challenges

Cloud backup vs. Traditional backup

Public cloud vs. private cloud vs. hybrid cloud storage

The following chart provides a quick overview of available cloud storage options.

Backup Services

Backblaze, Carbonite Inc., ElephantDrive, Mozy

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• Seamless Cloud Storage Solution Now Available: iSpaces Offers Portal to Multiple Cloud Storage Providers (prweb.com)
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• AWS Cloud Storage for the Enterprise (aws.typepad.com)
• Box cloud storage hits a glitch (gigaom.com)

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http://www.google.co.in/patents/US20110153567?dq=backup&ei=C9m0T_CBMc_trQeD8piODA

http://www.google.co.in/patents/US20050010609?dq=backup&ei=C9m0T_CBMc_trQeD8piODA

http://www.google.co.in/patents/US20060059384?dq=backup

http://xdelta.org/

Question 1:

A collection of 8 bits is called

a. byte

b. word

c. record

Question 2:

The ascending order or a data Hierarchy is

a. bit – bytes – fields – record – file – database

b. bit – bytes – record – field – file – database

c. bytes – bit- field – record – file – database

d. bytes -bit – record – field – file – database

Question 3:

How many address lines are needed to address each memory locations in a 2048 x 4 memory chip?

a. 10

b. 11

c. 8

d. 12

Question 4:

A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an

a. interpreter

b. simulator

c. compiler

d. commander

Question 5:

In immediate addressing the operand is placed

a. in the CPU register

b. after OP code in the instruction

c. in memory

d. in stack

Question 6:

Microprocessor 8085 can address location upto

a. 32K

b. 128K

c. 64K

d. 1M

Question 7:

The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputers are combined and manufacture on a single silicon chip. What is it called?

a. monochip

b. microprocessor

c. ALU

d. control unit

Question 8:

When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is executed,

a. the information where the stack is iniatialized is transferred to the stack pointer

b. the memory address of the RET instruction is transferred to the program counter

c. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the program counter

d. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the stack pointer

Question 9:

A microporgram is sequencer perform the operation

a. read

b. write

c. execute

d. read and write

e. read and execute

Question 10:

Interrupts which are initiated by an I/O drive are

a. internal

b. external

c. software

Question 1:

Processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe must have

a. ALU

b. Primary Storage

c. Control unit

d. All of above

Question 2:

What is the control unit’s function in the CPU?

a. To transfer data to primary storage

b. to store program instruction

c. to perform logic operations

d. to decode program instruction

Question 3:

What is meant by a dedicated computer?

a. which is used by one person only

b. which is assigned to one and only one task

c. which does one kind of software

d. which is meant for application software only

Question 4:

The most common addressing techiniques employed by a CPU is

a. immediate

b. direct

c. indirect

d. register

e. all of the above

Question 5:

Pipeline implement

a. fetch instruction

b. decode instruction

c. fetch operand

d. calculate operand

e. execute instruction

f. all of abve

Question 6:

Which of the following code is used in present day computing was developed by IBM corporation?

a. ASCII

b. Hollerith Code

c. Baudot code

d. EBCDIC code

Question 7:

When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored in/on the

a. stack pointer

b. accumulator

c. program counter

d. stack

Question 8:

A microprogram written as string of 0′s and 1′s is a

a. symbolic microinstruction

b. binary microinstruction

c. symbolic microprogram

d. binary microprogram

Question 9:

Interrupts which are initiated by  an instruction are

a. internal

b. external

c. hardware

d. software

Question 10:

Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions

a. CALL and RET

b. PUSH and POP

c. STA and LDA

Question 1:

Where does a computer add and compare data?

a. Hard disk

b. Floppy disk

c. CPU chip

d. Memory chip

Question 2:

Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located?

a. Memory Address Register

b. Memory Data Register

c. Instruction Register

d. Program Register

Question 3:

A complete microcomputer system consists of

a. microprocessor

b. memory

c. peripheral equipment

d. all of above

Question 4:

CPU does not perform the operation

a. data transfer

b. logic operation

c. arithmetic operation

d. all of above

Question 5:

Pipelining strategy is called implement

a. instruction execution

b. instruction prefetch

c. instruction decoding

d. instruction manipulation

Question 6:

A stack is

a. an 8-bit register in the microprocessor

b. a 16-bit register in the microprocessor

c. a set of memory locations in R/WM reserved for storing information temporarily during the execution of computer

d. a 16-bit memory address stored in the program counter

Question 7:

A stack pointer is

a. a 16-bit register in the microprocessor that indicate the beginning of the stack memory.

b. a register that decodes and executes 16-bit arithmetic expression.

c. The first memory location where a subroutine address is stored.

d. a register in which flag bits are stored

Question 8:

The branch logic that provides decision making capabilities in the control unit is known as

a. controlled transfer

b. conditional transfer

c. unconditional transfer

d. none of above

Question 9:

Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are

a. internal

b. external

c. hardware

d. software

Question 10:

A time sharing system imply

a. more than one processor in the system

b. more than one program in memory

c. more than one memory in the system

Questions 1:

The relational database environment has all of the following components except

a. users

b. separate files

c. database

d. query languages

e. database

Question 2:

Database management systems are intended to

a. eliminate data redundancy

b. establish relationship among records in different files

c. manage file access

d. maintain data integrity

e. all of the above 

Question 3:

One approach to standardization storing of data?

a. MIS

b. structured programming

c. CODASYL specification

d. none of the above

Question 4:

The language used application programs to request data from the DBMS is
referred to as the

a. DML

b. DDL

c. query language

d. any of the above

e. none of the above

Question 5:

The highest  level in the hierarchy of data organization is called

a. data bank

b. data base

c. data file

d. data record

Question 6:

Choose the RDBMS which supports full fledged client server application development

a. dBase V

b. Oracle 7.1

c. FoxPro 2.1

d. Ingress

Question 7:

Report generators are used to

a. store data input by a user

b. retrieve information from files

c. answer queries

d. both b and c

Question 8:

A form defined

a. where data is placed on the screen

b. the width of each field

c. both a and b

d. none of the above

Question 9:

A top-to-bottom relationship among the items in a database is established by a

a. hierarchical schema

b. network schema

c. relational schema

d. all of the above

Question 10:

The management information system (MIS) structure with one main computer
system is called a

a. hierarchical MIS structure

b. distributed MIS structure

c. centralized MIS structure

d. decentralized MIS structure

Questions 1:

Which of the following is not true of the traditional approach to information processing

a. there is common sharing of data among the various applications

b. it is file oriented

c. programs are dependent on the file

d. it is inflexible

e. all of the above are true

Question 2:

Which of the following hardware component is the most important to the operation of database management system?

a. high resolution video display

b. printer

c. high speed, large capacity disk

d. plotter

e. mouse

Question 3:

Generalized database management system do not retrieve data to meet routine request

a. true

b. false

Question 4:

Batch processing is appropriate if

a. large computer system is available

b. only a small computer system is avilbale

c. only a few transactions are involved

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Question 5:

Large collection of files are called

a. fields

b. records

c. database

d. sectors

Question 6:

Which of the following is not a relational database?

a. dBase IV

b. 4th Dimension

c. FoxPro

d. Reflex

Question 7:

In order to use a record management system

a. you need to understand the low level details of how information is stored

b. you need to understand the model the record management system uses

c. bother a and b

d. none of the above

Question 8:

Sort/Report generators

a. are faster than index/report generators

b. require more disk space than indexed/report generators

c. do not need to sort before generating report

d. both a and b

Question 9:

If a piece of data is stored in two places in the database, then

a. storage space is wasted

b. changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency

c. in can be more easily accessed

d. both and b

Question 10:

An audit trail

a. is used to make backup copies

b. is the recorded history of operations performed on a file

c. can be used to restore lost information

d. none of the aobve

Questions 1:

Which of the following fields in a student file can be used as a primary key?

a. class

b. Social Security Number

c. GPA

d. Major

Question 2:

Which of the following is not an advantage of the database approach

a. Elimination of data redundancy

b. Ability of associate deleted data

c. increased security

d. program/data independence

e. all of the above 

Question 3:

Which of the following contains a complete record of all activity that affected the contents of a database during a certain period of time?

a. report writer

b. query language

c. data manipulation language

d. transaction log

e. none of the above

Question 4:

In the DBMS approach, application programs perform the

a. storage function

b. processing functions

c. access control

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Question 5:

A set of programs that handle a firm’s database responsibilities is called

a. database management system (DBMS)

b. database processing system (DBPS)

c. data management system (DMS)

d. all of above

Question 6:

Which is the make given to the database management system which is able to handle full text data, image data, audio and video?

a. full media

b. graphics media

c. multimedia

d. hypertext

Question 7:

A record management system

a. can handle many files of information at a time

b. can be used to extract information stored in a computer file

c. always uses a list as its model

d. both a and b

Question 8:

A command that lets you change one or more fields in a record is

a. insert

b. modify

c. lookup

d. none of above

Question 9:

A transparent DBMS

a. can not hide sensitive information from users

b. keeps its logical structure hidden from users

c. keeps its physical structure hidden from users

d. both b and c

Question 10:

A file produced by a spreadsheet

a. is generally stored on disk in an ASCII text fromat

b. can be used as is by the DBMS

c. both a and b

Questions 1:

The ascending order of a data hirerchy is:

a. bit-byte-record-field-file-database

b. byte-bit-field-record-file-database

c. bit-byte-field-record-file-database

d. bit-byte-file-record-field-database

Question 2:

Which of the following is true of a network structure?

a. t is a physical representation of the data

b. It allows a many-to-many relationship

c. It is conceptually simple

d. It will be dominant data base of the future

Question 3:

Which of the following is a problem of file management system?

a. difficult to update

b. lack of data independence

c. data redundancy

d. program dependence

e. all of above

Question 4:

One data dictionery software package is called

a. DB/DC dictionary

b. TOTAL

c. ACCESS

d. Datapac

e. Data Manager

Question 5:

The function of a database is …

a. to check all input data

b. to check all spelling

c. to collect and organize input data

d. to output data

Question 6:

What is the language used by most of the DBMSs for helping their users to access data?

a. High level language

b. SQL

c. Query Language

d. 4GL

Question 7:

The model for a record management system might be

a. handwritten list

b. a Rolodex card file

c. a business form

d. all of above

Question 8:

Primitive operations common to all record management system include

a. print

b. sort

c. look-up

d. all of above

Question 9:

In a large DBMS

a. each user can “see” only a small part of the entire database

b. each subschema contains every field in the logical schema

c. each user can access every subschema

Question 10:

Information can be transferred between the DBMS and a

a. spreadsheet program

b. word processor program

c. graphics program

Question 1:

Where does a computer add and compare data?

a. Hard disk

b. Floppy disk

c. CPU chip

d. Memory chip

Question 2:

Which of the following registers is used to keep track of address of the memory location where the next instruction is located?

a. Memory Address Register

b. Memory Data Register

c. Instruction Register

d. Program Register

Question 3:

A complete microcomputer system consists of

a. microprocessor

b. memory

c. peripheral equipment

d. all of above

Question 4:

CPU does not perform the operation

a. data transfer

b. logic operation

c. arithmetic operation

d. all of above

Question 5:

Pipelining strategy is called implement

a. instruction execution

b. instruction prefetch

c. instruction decoding

d. instruction manipulation

Question 6:

A stack is

a. an 8-bit register in the microprocessor

b. a 16-bit register in the microprocessor

c. a set of memory locations in R/WM reserved for storing information temporarily during the execution of computer

d. a 16-bit memory address stored in the program counter

Question 7:

A stack pointer is

a. a 16-bit register in the microprocessor that indicate the beginning of the stack memory.

b. a register that decodes and executes 16-bit arithmetic expression.

c. The first memory location where a subroutine address is stored.

d. a register in which flag bits are stored

Question 8:

The branch logic that provides decision making capabilities in the control unit is known as

a. controlled transfer

b. conditional transfer

c. unconditional transfer

d. none of above

Question 9:

Interrupts which are initiated by an instruction are

a. internal

b. external

c. hardware

d. software

Question 10:

A time sharing system imply

a. more than one processor in the system

b. more than one program in memory

c. more than one memory in the system

Question 1:

Processors of all computers, whether micro, mini or mainframe must have

a. ALU

b. Primary Storage

c. Control unit

d. All of above

Question 2:

What is the control unit’s function in the CPU?

a. To transfer data to primary storage

b. to store program instruction

c. to perform logic operations

d. to decode program instruction

Question 3:

What is meant by a dedicated computer?

a. which is used by one person only

b. which is assigned to one and only one task

c. which does one kind of software

d. which is meant for application software only

Question 4:

The most common addressing techiniques employed by a CPU is

a. immediate

b. direct

c. indirect

d. register

e. all of the above

Question 5:

Pipeline implement

a. fetch instruction

b. decode instruction

c. fetch operand

d. calculate operand

e. execute instruction

f. all of abve

Question 6:

Which of the following code is used in present day computing was developed by IBM corporation?

a. ASCII

b. Hollerith Code

c. Baudot code

d. EBCDIC code

Question 7:

When a subroutine is called, the address of the instruction following the CALL instructions stored in/on the

a. stack pointer

b. accumulator

c. program counter

d. stack

Question 8:

A microprogram written as string of 0′s and 1′s is a

a. symbolic microinstruction

b. binary microinstruction

c. symbolic microprogram

d. binary microprogram

Question 9:

Interrupts which are initiated by  an instruction are

a. internal

b. external

c. hardware

d. software

Question 10:

Memory access in RISC architecture is limited to instructions

a. CALL and RET

b. PUSH and POP

c. STA and LDA

Question 1:

A collection of 8 bits is called

a. byte

b. word

c. record

Question 2:

The ascending order or a data Hierarchy is

a. bit – bytes – fields – record – file – database

b. bit – bytes – record – field – file – database

c. bytes – bit- field – record – file – database

d. bytes -bit – record – field – file – database

Question 3:

How many address lines are needed to address each memory locations in a 2048 x 4 memory chip?

a. 10

b. 11

c. 8

d. 12

Question 4:

A computer program that converts an entire program into machine language at one time is called a/an

a. interpreter

b. simulator

c. compiler

d. commander

Question 5:

In immediate addressing the operand is placed

a. in the CPU register

b. after OP code in the instruction

c. in memory

d. in stack

Question 6:

Microprocessor 8085 can address location upto

a. 32K

b. 128K

c. 64K

d. 1M

Question 7:

The ALU and control unit of most of the microcomputers are combined and manufacture on a single silicon chip. What is it called?

a. monochip

b. microprocessor

c. ALU

d. control unit

Question 8:

When the RET instruction at the end of subroutine is executed,

a. the information where the stack is iniatialized is transferred to the stack pointer

b. the memory address of the RET instruction is transferred to the program counter

c. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the program counter

d. two data bytes stored in the top two locations of the stack are transferred to the stack pointer

Question 9:

A microporgram is sequencer perform the operation

a. read

b. write

c. execute

d. read and write

e. read and execute

Question 10:

Interrupts which are initiated by an I/O drive are

a. internal

b. external

c. software

Question 1:

In OSI network architecture, the dialogue control and token management are responsibility of

a. session layer

b. network layer

c. transport layer

d. data link layer

e. none of above

Question 2:

In OSI network architecture, the routing is performed by

a. network layer

b. data link layer

c. transport layer

d. session layer

e. none of above

Question 3:

Which of the following performs modulation and demodulation?

a. fiber optics

b. satellite

c. coaxial cable

d. modem

e. none of the above

Question 4:

The process of converting analog signals into digital signals so they can be processed by a receiving computer is referred to as:

a. modulation

b. demodulation

c. synchronizing

d. digitising

Question 5:

How many OSI layers are covered in the X.25 standard?

a. Two

b. Three

c. Seven

d. Six

e. None of above

Question 6:

Layer one of the OSI model is

a. physical layer

b. link layer

c. transport layer

d. network layer

e. none of above

Question 7:

The x.25 standard specifies a

a. technique for start-stop data

b. technique for dial access

c. DTE/DCE interface

d. data bit rate

e. none of above

Question 8:

Which of the following communication modes support two-way traffic but in only one direction at a time?

a. simplex

b. half duplex

c. three-quarters duplex

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Question 9:

Which of the following might be used by a company to satisfy its growing communications needs?

a. front end processor

b. multiplexer

c. controller

d. concentrator

e. all of the above

Question 10:

What is the number of separate protocol layers at the serial interface gateway specified by the X.25 standard?

a. 4

b. 2

c. 6

d. 3

Question 1:

The interactive transmission of data within a time sharing system may be best suited to

a. simplex lines

b. half-duplex lines

c. full duplex lines

d. biflex-lines

Question 2:

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. The difference between synchronous and asynchronous transmission is the clocking derived from the data in synchronous transmission.

b. Half duplex line is a communication line in which data can move in two directions, but not at the same time.

c. Teleprocessing combines telecommunications and DP techniques in online activities

d. Batch processing is the prefered processing mode for telecommunication operation.

Question 3:

Which of hte following is considered a broad band communication channel?

a. coaxial cable

b. fiber optics cable

c. microwave circuits

d. all of above

Question 4:

Which of the following is not a transmission medium?

a. telephone lines

b. coaxial cables

c. modem

d. microwave systems

Question 5:

Which of the following does not allow multiple uses or devices to share one communication line?

a. doubleplexer

b. multiplexer

c. concentrator

d. controller

Question 6:

Which of the following signal is not standard RS-232-C signal?

a. VDR

b. RTS

c. CTS

d. DSR

Question 7:

Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a. Multiplexers are designed to accept data from several I/O devices and transmit a unified stream of data on one communication line

b. HDLC is a standard synchronous communication protocol.

c. RTS/CTS is the way the DTE indicates that it is ready to transmit data and the way the DCW indicates that it is ready to accept data

d. RTS/CTS is the way the terminal indicates ringing

Question 8:

Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?

a. resistance to data theft

b. fast data transmission rate

c. low noise level

d. all of above

Question 9:

Which of the following is required to communicate between two computers?

a. communications software

b. protocol

c. communication hardware

d. all of above including access to transmission medium

Question 10:

The transmission signal coding method of TI carrier is called

a. Bipolar

b. NRZ

c. Manchester

Question 1:

Which data communication method is used to transmit the data over a serial communication link?

a. simplex

b. half-duplex

c. full-duplex

d. b and c

e. None of above

Question 2:

What is the minimum number of wires needed to send data over a serial communication link layer?

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6

e. none of above

Question 3:

Which of the following types of channels moves data relatively slowly?

a. wide band channel

b. voice band challen

c. narrow band channel

Question 4:

Most data communications involving telegraph lines use:

a. simplex lines

b. wideband channel

c. narrowband channel

d. dialed service

Question 5:

A communications device that combines transmissions from several I/O devices into one line is a

a. concentrator

b. modifier

c. multiplexer

d. full-duplex line

Question 6:

How much power (roughly) a light emitting diode can couple into an optical fiber?

a. 100 microwatts

b. 440 microwatts

c. 100 picowatts

d. 10 miliwatts

Question 7:

The synchronous modems are more costly than the asynchronous modems because

a. they produce large volume of data

b. they contain clock recovery circuits

c. they transmit the data with stop and start bits

d. they operate with a larger bandwidth

e. none of above

Question 8:

Which of the following statement is correct?

a. terminal section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

b. receiver section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

c. transmission section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

d. control section of a synchronous modem contains the scrambler

e. none of the above

Question 9:

In a synchronous modem, the digital-to-analog converter transmits signal to the

a. equilizer

b. modulator

c. demodulator

d. terminal

e. none of aobve

Question 10:

Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?

a. narrow band channel

b. simplex lines

c. full duplex lines

Question:1

A remote batch-processing operation in which data is solely input to a central computer would require

a. telegraphp line

b. simplex lines

c. mixed bad channel

d. all of above

Question 2:

A band is always equivalent to

a. a byte

b. a bit

c. 100 bits

d. none of above

Question 3:

The loss in signal power as light travels down the fiber is called

a. attenuation

b. progragation

c. scattering

d. interruption

Question 4:

Avalanche photodiode receivers can detect bits of transmitted data by receiving

a. 100 photons

b. 200 photons

c. 2000 photons

d. 300 photons

Question 5:

Communiction circuits that transmit data in both directions but not at the same time are operating in

a. a simplex mode

b. a half duplex mode

c. a full duplex mode

d. an asynchronous mode

Question 6:

An example of a medium speed, switched communications service is

a. series 1000

b. data phone 50

c. DDD

d. All of the above

Question 7:

In communication satellite, multiple repeaters are known as

a. detector

b. modulator

c. stations

d. transponders

Question 8:

While transmitting odd-parity coded symbols, the number of zeros in each symbol is

a. odd

b. even

c. a and b both

d. unknown

Question 9:

Data communications monitors available on the software marked include

a. ENVIRON/1

b. TOTAL

c. BPL

d. Telnet

Question 10:

An example of an analog communication method is

a. laser beam

b. microwave

c. voice grade telephone line

Question:1

Number of bits per symbol used in Baudot code is

a. 7

b. 5

c. 8

d. 9

Question 2:

What is the main difference between DDCMP and SDLC?

a. DDCMP does not need special hardware to final the beginning of a message

b. DDCMP has a message header

c. SDLC has a IP address

d. SDLC does not use CRC

Question 3:

An example of digital, rather than analog, communication is

a. DDD

b. DDS

c. WATS

d. DDT

Question 4:

Terminals are required for

a. real-time, batch processing & time-sharing

b. real time, time-sharing & distributed message processing

c. real time, distributed processing & manager inquiry

d. real-time,  time sharing & message switching

Question 5:

The receive equilizer reduces delay distortions using a

a. tapped delay lines

b. gearshift

c. descrambler

d. difference engine

Question 6:

Ina synchronous modem, the receive equilizer is known as

a. adaptive equilizer

b. impariment equilizer

c. statistical equilizer

d. compromise equilizer

Question 7:

The channel in the data communication model can be

a. postal mail services

b. telephone lines

c. radio lines

d. any of the above

Question 8:

A data terminal serves as an

a. Effector

b. sensor

c. both a and b

d. neither a nor b

Question 9:

Which of the following transmission systems provide the highest data rate to in individual device?

a. computer bus

b. telephone lines

c. voice and mode

d. lease lines

Question 10:

A protocol is a set of rules governing a time sequence of events that must take place

a. between peers

b. between an interface

c. between modems

Question 1.

How many steps are in the systems development life cycle (SDLC)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

Question 2.

The first step in the systems development life cycle (SDLC) is:
A. Analysis.
B. Design.
C. Problem/Opportunity Identification.
D. Development and Documentation.

Question 3.

Most modern software applications enable you to customize and
automate various features using small custom-built “miniprograms” called:
A. macros.
B. code.
C. routines.
D. subroutines.

Question 4.

The organized process or set of steps that needs to be followed to
develop an information system is known as the:
A. analytical cycle.
B. design cycle.
C. program specification.
D. system development life cycle.

Question 5.

How many steps are in the program development life cycle (PDLC)?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 10

Question 6.

The make-or-buy decision is associated with the ____________ step in
the SDLC.
A. Problem/Opportunity Identification
B. Design
C. Analysis
D. Development and Documentation

Question 7.

In the Analysis phase, the development of the ____________ occurs,
which is a clear statement of the goals and objectives of the project.
A. documentation
B. flowchart
C. program specification
D. design

Question 8.

Actual programming of software code is done during the ____________
step in the SDLC.
A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Design
C. Analysis
D. Development and Documentation

Question 9.

Enhancements, upgrades, and bug fixes are done during the
____________ step in the SDLC.
A. Maintenance and Evaluation
B. Problem/Opportunity Identification
C. Design
D. Development and Documentation

Question 10.

The ____________ determines whether the project should go
forward.
A. feasibility assessment
B. opportunity identification
C. system evaluation
D. program specification

Question 11.

Technical writers generally provide the ____________ for the new
system.
A. programs
B. network
C. analysis
D. documentation

Question 12.

____________ design and implement database structures.
A. Programmers
B. Project managers
C. Technical writers
D. Database administrators

Question 13.

____________ spend most of their time in the beginning stages of the
SDLC, talking with end-users, gathering information, documenting
systems, and proposing solutions.
A. Systems analysts
B. Project managers
C. Network engineers
D. Database administrators

Question 14.

____________ manage the system development, assign staff, manage
the budget and reporting, and ensure that deadlines are met.
A. Project managers
B. Network engineers
C. Graphic designers
D. Systems analysts

Question 15.

____________ is the process of translating a task into a series of
commands that a computer will use to perform that task.
A. Project design
B. Installation
C. Systems analysis
D. Programming

Question 16.

Debugging is:
A. creating program code.
B. finding and correcting errors in the program code.
C. identifying the task to be computerized.
D. creating the algorithm.

Question 17.

Translating the problem statement into a series of sequential steps
describing what the program must do is known as:
A. coding.
B. debugging.
C. creating the algorithm.
D. writing documentation.

Question 18.

Translating the algorithm into a programming language occurs at the
____________ step of the PDLC.
A. Debugging
B. Coding
C. Testing and Documentation
D. Algorithm Development

Question 19.

The problem statement should include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. input.
B. output.
C. processing.
D. storage.

Question 20.

1. Two main measures for the efficiency of an algorithm are

c. Time and space

2. The time factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

b. Counting the number of key operations

3. The space factor when determining the efficiency of algorithm is measured by

a. Counting the maximum memory needed by the algorithm

4. Which of the following case does not exist in complexity theory

d. Null case

5. The Worst case occur in linear search algorithm when

d. Item is the last element in the array or is not there at all

6. The Average case occur in linear search algorithm

a. When Item is somewhere in the middle of the array

7. The complexity of the average case of an algorithm is

a. Much more complicated to analyze than that of worst case

8. The complexity of linear search algorithm is

a. O(n)

9. The complexity of Binary search algorithm is

b. O(log n)

10. The complexity of Bubble sort algorithm is

c. O(n²)

11. The complexity of merge sort algorithm is

d. O(n log n)

12. The indirect change of the values of a variable in one module by another module is called

c. side effect

13. Which of the following data structure is not linear data structure?

d. None of above

14. Which of the following data structure is linear data structure?

c. Arrays

15. The operation of processing each element in the list is known as

d. Traversal

16. Finding the location of the element with a given value is:

b. Search

17. Arrays are best data structures

a. for relatively permanent collections of data

18. Linked lists are best suited

b. for the size of the structure and the data in the structure are constantly changing

19. Each array declaration need not give, implicitly or explicitly, the information about

c. the first data from the set to be stored
20. The elements of an array are stored successively in memory cells because

a. by this way computer can keep track only the address of the first element and the addresses of other elements can be calculated

1.    Which data structure allows deleting data elements from front and inserting at rear?

b. Queues

2.    Identify the data structure which allows deletions at both ends of the list but insertion at only one end.

a. Input-restricted deque

3.    Which of the following data structure is non-linear type?

d. None of above

4.    Which of the following data structure is linear type?

d. All of above

5.    To represent hierarchical relationship between elements, which data structure is suitable?

c.   Tree

6.    A binary tree whose every node has either zero or two children is called

c. Extended binary tree

7.    The depth of a complete binary tree is given by

d. D_n =  log₂n + 1

8.    When representing any algebraic expression E which uses only binary operations in a 2-tree,

a. the variable in E will appear as external nodes and operations in internal nodes

9.    A binary tree can easily be converted into q 2-tree

d. by replacing each empty sub tree by a new external node

10.  When converting binary tree into extended binary tree, all the original nodes in binary tree are

a. internal nodes on extended tree

11. The post order traversal of a binary tree is DEBFCA. Find out the pre order traversal

c.   ABDECF

12.  Which of the following sorting algorithm is of divide-and-conquer type?

c.   Quick sort

13.  An algorithm that calls itself directly or indirectly is known as

b. Recursion

14.  In a binary tree, certain null entries are replaced by special pointers which point to nodes higher in the tree for efficiency. These special pointers are called

d. thread

15.  The in order traversal of tree will yield a sorted listing of elements of tree in

b. Binary search trees

16.  In a Heap tree

b. Values in a node is greater than every value in children of it

17.  In a graph if e=[u, v], Then u and v are called

d. all of above

18.  A connected graph T without any cycles is called

d. All of above

19.  In a graph if e=(u, v) means

d. both b and c

20. If every node u in G is adjacent to every other node v in G, A graph is said to be

b. complete

1. The memory address of the first element of an array is called

d. base address

2. The memory address of fifth element of an array can be calculated by the formula

a. LOC(Array[5]=Base(Array)+w(5-lower bound), where w is the number of words per memory cell for the array

3. Which of the following data structures are indexed structures?

a. linear arrays

4. Which of the following is not the required condition for binary search algorithm?

c. There must be mechanism to delete and/or insert elements in list

5. Which of the following is not a limitation of binary search algorithm?

d. binary search algorithm is not efficient when the data elements are more than 1000.

6. Two dimensional arrays are also called

c. both of above

7. A variable P is called pointer if

a. P contains the address of an element in DATA.

8. Which of the following data structure can’t store the non-homogeneous data elements?

a. Arrays

9. Which of the following data structure store the non-homogeneous data elements?

b. Records

10. Each data item in a record may be a group item composed of sub-items; those items which are indecomposable are called

d. all of above

11. The difference between linear array and a record is

d. All of above

12. Which of the following statement is false?

c. pointers store the next data element of a list

13. Binary search algorithm can not be applied to

a. sorted linked list

14. When new data are to be inserted into a data structure, but there is no available space; this situation is usually called

b. overflow

15. The situation when in a linked list START=NULL is

a. underflow

16. Which of the following is two way list?

d. none of above

17. Which of the following name does not relate to stacks?

a. FIFO lists

18. The term “push” and “pop” is related to the

c. stacks

19. A data structure where elements can be added or removed at either end but not in the middle

d. Deque

20. When inorder traversing a tree resulted E A C K F H D B G; the preorder traversal would return

b. FAEKCDHGB

Question 1

Identify the correct statement

a. Programmer can use comments to include short explanations within the source code itself.

b. All lines beginning with two slash signs are considered comments.

c. Comments very important effect on the behaviour of the program

d. both

Question 2

The directives for the preprocessors begin with

a.    Ampersand symbol (&

b.    Two Slashes (//)

c.    Number Sign (#)

d.    Less than symbol (<

Question 3

The file iostream includes

a.    The declarations of the basic standard input-output library.

b.    The streams of includes and outputs of program effect.

c.    Both of these

d.    None of these

Question 4

There is a unique function in C++ program by where all C++ programs start their execution

a.    Start()

b.    Begin()

c.    Main()

d.    Output()

Question 5

Every function in C++ are followed by

a.    Parameters

b.    Parenthesis

c.    Curly braces

d.    None of these

Question 6

Which of the following is false?

a.    Cout represents the standard output stream in c++.

b.    Cout is declared in the iostream standard file

c.    Cout is declared within the std namespace

d.    None of above

Question 7

Every statement in C++ program should end with

a.    A full stop (.)

b.    A Comma (,)

c.    A Semicolon (

d.    A colon (

Question 8

Which of the following statement is true about preprocessor directives?

a.    These are lines read and processed by the preprocessor

b.    They do not produce any code by themselves

c.    These must be written on their own line

d.    They end with a semicolon

Question 9

A block comment can be written by

a.    Starting every line with double slashes (//)

b.    Starting  with /* and ending with */

c.    Starting with //* and ending with *//

d.    Starting with <!- and ending with -!>

Question 10

When writing comments you can

a.    Use code and  /* comment on the same line

b.    Use code and // comments on the same line

c.    Use code and //* comments on the same line

Question 1.

What is the correct value to return to the operating system upon the successful completion of a program?
A. -1
B. 1
C. 0
D. Programs do not return a value.

Question 2.

What is the only function all C++ programs must contain?
A. start()
B. system()
C. main()
D. program()

Question 3.

What punctuation is used to signal the beginning and end of code blocks?
A. { }
B. -> and <-
C. BEGIN and END
D. ( and )

Question 4.

What punctuation ends most lines of C++ code?
A. . (dot)
B. ; (semi-colon)
C. : (colon)
D. ‘ (single quote)

Question 5.

Which of the following is a correct comment?
A. */ Comments */
B. ** Comment **
C. /* Comment */
D. { Comment }

Question 6.

Which of the following is not a correct variable type?
A. float
B. real
C. int
D. double

Question 7.

Which of the following is the correct operator to compare two variables?
A. :=
B. =
C. equal
D. ==

Question 8.

Which of the following is true?
A. 1
B. 66
C. .1
D. -1
E. All of the above

Question 9.

Which of the following is the boolean operator for logical-and?
A. &
B. &&
C. |
D. |&

Question 10.

Question 1:

A function can not be overloaded only by its return type.

a. True

b. False

Question 2:

A function can be overloaded with a different return type if it has all the parameters same.

a. True

b. False

Question 3:

Inline functions involves some additional overhead in running time.

a. True

b. False

Question 4:

A function that calls itself for its processing is known as

a. Inline Function

b. Nested Function

c. Overloaded Function

d. Recursive Function

Question 5:

We declare a function with ______ if it does not have any return type

a. long

b. double

c. void

d. int

Question 6:

Arguments of a functions are separated with

a. comma (,)

b. semicolon (

c. colon (

d. None of these

Question 7:

Variables inside parenthesis of functions declarations have _____ level access.

a. Local

b. Global

c. Module

d. Universal

Question 8:

Observe following function declaration and choose the best answer:

int  divide ( int a, int b = 2 )

a. Variable b is of integer  type and will always have value 2

b. Variable a and b are of int type and the initial value of both variables is 2

c. Variable b is international scope and will have value 2

d. Variable b will have value 2 if not specified when calling function

Question 9:

The keyword endl

a. Ends the execution of program where it is written

b. Ends the output in cout statement

c. Ends the line in program. There can be no statements after endl

d. Ends current line and starts a new line in cout statement.

Question 10:

Strings are character arrays. The last index of it contains the null-terminated character

a. \n

b. \t

c. 

Question 1:

The void specifier is used if a function does not have return type.

a.       True

b.      False

Question 2:

You must specify void in parameters if a function does not have any arguments.

a.       True

b.      False

Question 3:

Type specifier is optional when declaring a function

a.       True

b.      False

Question 4:

Study the following piece of code and choose the best answer

int x=5, y=3, z;

a=addition(x,y)

a.       The function addition is called by passing the values

b.      The function addition is called by passing reference

Question 5:

In case of arguments passed by values when calling a function such as z=addidion(x,y),

a.       Any modifications to the variables x & y from inside the function will not have any effect outside the function.

b.      The variables x and y will be updated when any modification is done in the function

c.       The variables x and y are passed to the function addition

d.      None of above are valid.

Question 6:

If the type specifier of parameters of a function is followed by an ampersand (& , that function call is

a.       pass by value

b.      pass by reference

Question 7:

In case of pass by reference

a.       The values of those variables are passed to the function so that it can manipulate them

b.      The location of variable in memory is passed to the function so that it can use the same memory area for its processing

c.       The function declaration should contain ampersand (& in its type declaration

d.      All of above

Question 8:

Overloaded functions are

a.       Very long functions that can hardly run

b.      One function containing another one or more functions inside it.

c.       Two or more functions with the same name but different number of parameters or type.

d.      None of above

Question 9:

Functions can be declared with default values in parameters. We use default keyword to specify the value of such parameters.

a.       True

b.      False

Question 10:

Examine the following program and determine the output

#include <iostream>

using namespace std;

int operate (int a, int b)

{

return (a * b);

}

float operate (float a, float b)

{

return (a/b);

}

int main()

{

int x=5, y=2;

float n=5.0, m=2.0;

cout << operate(x,y) <<”\t”;

cout << operate (n,m);

return 0;

}

a.       10.0      5.0

b.      5.0         2.5

c.       10.0      5

Question 1:

Find out the error in following block of code.

If (x = 100)

Cout << “x is 100”;

1. 100 should be enclosed in quotations
2. There is no semicolon at the end of first line
3. c.       Equals to operator mistake
4. Variable x should not be inside quotation

Question 2:

Looping in a program means

1. Jumping to the specified branch of program
2. b.      Repeat the specified lines of code
3. Both of above
4. None of above

Question 3:

The difference between while structure and do structure for looping is

1. In while statement the condition is tested at the end of first iteration
2. In do structure the condition is tested at the beginning of first iteration
3. The do structure decides whether to start the loop code or not whereas while statement decides whether to repeat the code or not
4. d.      In while structure condition is tested before executing statements inside loop whereas in do structure condition is tested before repeating the statements inside loop

Question 4:

Which of the following is not a looping statement in C?

1. while
2. b.      until
3. do
4. for

Question 5:

Which of the following is not a jump statement in C++?

1. break
2. goto
3. exit
4. d.      switch

Question 6:

Which of the following is selection statement in C++?

1. break
2. goto
3. exit
4. d.      switch

Question 7:

The continue statement

1. resumes the program if it is hanged
2. resumes the program if it was break was applied
3. c.       skips the rest of the loop in current iteration
4. all of above

Question 8:

Consider the following two pieces of codes and choose the best answer

Code 1:

switch (x) {

case  1:

cout <<”x is 1”;

break;

case 2:

cout <<”x is 2”;

break;

default:

cout <<”value of x unknown”;

}

Code 2

If (x==1){

Cout <<”x is 1”;

}

Else if (x==2){

Cout << “x is 2”;

}

Else{

Cout <<”value of x unknown”;

}

1. a.       Both of the above code fragments have the same behaviour
2. Both of the above code fragments produce different effects
3. The first code produces more results than second
4. The second code produces more results than first.

Question 9:

Observe the following block of code and determine what happens when x=2?

switch (x){

case 1:

case 2:

case 3:

cout<< “x is 3, so jumping to third branch”;

goto thirdBranch;

default:

cout<<”x is not within the range, so need to say Thank You!”;

}

1. Program jumps to the end of switch statement since there is nothing to do for x=2
2. The code inside default will run since there is no task for x=2, so, default task is run
3. c.       Will display x is 3, so jumping to third branch and jumps to thirdBranch.
4. None of above

Question 10

Which of the following is false for switch statement in C++?

1. It uses labels instead of blocks
2. we need to put break statement at the end of the group of statement of a condition
3. c.       we can put range for case such as case 1..3
   1. None of above

Question 1:

cin extraction stops execution as soon as it finds any blank space character

a.       true

b.      false

Question 2:

Observe the following statements and decide what do they do.

string mystring;

getline(cin, mystring);

a.       reads a line of string from cin into mystring

b.      reads a line of string from mystring into cin

c.       cin can’t be used this way

d.      none of above

Question 3:

Regarding stringstream identify the invalid statement

a.       stringstream is defined in the header file <sstream>

b.      It allows string based objects treated as stream

c.       It is especially useful to convert strings to numerical values and vice versa.

d.      None of above

Question 4:

Which of the header file must be included to use stringstream?

a.       <iostream>

b.      <string>

c.       <sstring>

d.      <sstream>

Question 5:

Which of the following header file does not exist?

a.       <iostream>

b.      <string>

c.       <sstring>

d.      <sstream>

Question 6:

If you use same variable for two getline statements

a.       Both the inputs are stored in that variable

b.      The second input overwrites the first one

c.       The second input attempt fails since the variable already got its value

d.      You can not use same variable for two getline statements

Question 7:

The “return 0;” statement in main function indicates

a.       The program did nothing; completed 0 tasks

b.      The program worked as expected without any errors during its execution

c.        not to end the program yet.

d.      None of above

Question 8:

Which of the following is not a reserve keyword in C++?

a.       mutable

b.      default

c.       readable

d.      volatile

Question 9:

The size of following variable is not 4 bytes in 32 bit systems

a.       int

b.      long int

c.       short int

d.      float

Question 10:

Identify the correct statement regarding scope of variables

a.       Global variables are declared in a separate file and accessible from any program.

b.      Local variables are declared inside a function and accessible within the function only.

c.       Global variables are declared inside a function and accessible from anywhere in program.

d.      Local variables are declared in the main body of the program and accessible only from functions.

Question 1

Streams are

a.       Abstraction to perform input and output operations in sequential media

b.      Abstraction to perform input and output operations in direct access media

c.       Objects  where a program can either insert or extract characters to and from it

d.      Both a and c

Question 2

Which of the following is known as insertion operator?

a.       ^

b.      v

c.       << 

d.      >>

Question 3:

Regarding the use of  new line character (/n) and endl manipulator with cout statement

a.       Both ways are exactly same

b.      Both are similar but endl additionally performs flushing of buffer

c.       endl can’t be used with cout

d.      \n can’t be used with cout

Question 4:

Which of the following is output statement in C++?

a.       print

b.      write

c.       cout

d.      cin

Question 5:

Which of the following is input statement in C++?

a.       cin

b.      input

c.       get

d.      none of above

Question 6:

By default, the standard output device for C++ programs is

a.       Printer

b.      Monitor

c.       Modem

d.      Disk

Question 7:

By default, the standard input device for C++ program is

a.       Keyboard

b.      Mouse

c.       Scanner

d.      None of these

Question 8:

Which of the following statement is true regarding cin statement?

a.       cin statement must contain a variable preceded by >> operator

b.      cin does not process the input until user presses RETURN key

c.       you can use more than one datum input from user by using cin

d.      all of above

Question 9:

Which of the following is extraction operator in C++?

a.       ^

b.      v

c.       <<

d.      >> 

Question 10:

When requesting multiple datum, user must separate each by using

a.       a space

b.      a tab character

c.       a new line character

Question 1

In an assignment statement

a=b;

Which of the following statement is true?

a.    The variable a and the variable b are equal.

b.    The value of b is assigned to variable a but the later changes on variable b will not effect the value of variable a

c.    The value of b is assigned to variable a and the later changes on variable b will effect the value of variable a

d.    The value of variable a is assigned to variable b and the value of variable b is assigned to variable a.

Question 2

All of the following are valid expressions in C++

a  =  2 + (b = 5);

a  = b = c = 5;

a  = 11 % 3

a.    True

b.    False

Question 3:

To increase the value of c by one which of the following statement is wrong?

a.    c++;

b.    c = c + 1;

c.    c + 1 => c;

d.    c += 1

Question 4:

When following piece of code is executed, what happens?

b = 3;

a = b++;

a.    a contains 3 and b contains 4

b.    a contains 4 and b contains 4

c.    a contains 4 and b contains 3

d.    a contains 3 and b contains 3

Question 5:

The result of a Relational operation is always

a.    either True or False

b.    is less than or is more than

c.    is equal or less or more

d.    All of these

Question 6:

Which of the following is not a valid relational operator?

a.    ==

b.    =>

c.    >=

d.    >=

Question 7:

What is the final value of x when the code int x; for(x=0; x<10; x++) {} is run?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 0

D. 1

Question 8:

When does the code block following while(x<100) execute?

A. When x is less than one hundred

B. When x is greater than one hundred

C. When x is equal to one hundred

D. While it wishes

Question 9:

Which is not a loop structure?

A. for

B. do while

C. while

D. repeat until

Question 10:

How many times is a do while loop guaranteed to loop?

A. 0

B. Infinitely

C. 1

Question 1

A variable is/are

a.    String that varies during program execution

 b.    A portion of memory to store a determined value

c.    Those numbers that are frequently required in programs

d.    None of these

Question 2

Which of the following can not be used as identifiers?

a.    Letters

b.    Digits

c.    Underscores

 d.    Spaces

Question 3

Which of the following identifiers is invalid?

a.    papername

b.    writername

 c.    typename

d.    printname

Question 4

Which of the following can not be used as valid identifier?

 a.    bitand

b.    bittand

c.    biand

d.    band

Question 5

The difference between x and ‘x’ is

 a.    The first one refers to a variable whose identifier is x and the second one refers to the character constant x

b.    The first one is a character constant x and second one is the string literal x

c.    Both are same

d.    None of above

Question 6

Which of the following is not a valid escape code?

a.    \t

b.    \v

c.    \f

 d.    \w 

Question 7

Which of the following statement is true?

a.    String Literals can extend to more than a single line of code by putting a backslash sign at the end of each unfinished line.

b.    You can also concatenate several string constants separating them by one or several blank spaces, tabulators, newline or any other valid blank character

c.    If we want the string literal to explicitly made of wide characters, we can precede the constant with the L prefix

 d.    All of above

Question 8

Regarding #difine which of the following statement is false?

a.    It is not C++ statement but the directive for the preprocessor

b.    This does not require a semicolon at the end of line

 c.    It is a C++ statement that declares a constant in C++

d.    None of the above

Question 9

Regarding following statement  which of the statements is true? const int pathwidth=100;

a.    Declares a variable pathwidth with 100 as its initial value

b.    Declares a construction pathwidth with 100 as its initial value

 c.    Declares a constant pathwidth whose value will be 100

d.    Constructs an integer type variable with pathwidth as identifier and 100 as value

Question 10

In an assignment statement

a.    The lvalue must always be a variable

b.    The rvalue might be a constant, a variable, an expression or any combination of these

c.    The assignment always takes place from right to left and never the other way

1. ………. runs on computer hardware and serve as platform for other software to run on

a. Operating system

b. Application software

c. System software

d. All

2. ….is the layer of a computer system between the hardware and the user program

a. Operating environment

b. Operating system

c. System environment

d. None

3. The primary purpose of an operating system is…..

a. To make the most efficient use of the computer hardware

b. To allow people to use the computer

c. To keep systems programmers employed

d. To make computers easier to use

4. …….transforms one interface into another interface

a. Program

b. Software

c. Data

d. None

5. …..system is built directly on the hardware

a. Environment

b. System

c. Operating

d. None

6. Multiprogramming system

a. Are easier to develop than single programming system

b. Execute each job faster

c. Execute more jobs in the same time period

d. Are used only one large mainframe computers

7. …is the first program run on a computer when the computer boots up

a. System software

b. Operating system

c. System operations

d. None

Correct Answer: b

8. …..interface consists of things like program counter, registers, interrupts and terminals

a. Hardware

b. Software

c. Data

d. None

Correct Answer: a

9. ….share characteristics with both hardware and software

a. Operating system

b. Software

c. Data

d. None

Correct Answer: a

10. ….is used in operating system to separate mechanism from policy

a. Single level implementation

b. Two level implementation

c. Multi level implementation

d. None

11. The operating system creates …. from the physical computer

a. Virtual space

b. Virtual computers

c. Virtual device

d. None

Correct Answer: b

12. Swapping

a. Works best with many small partitions

b. Allows many programs to use memory simultaneously

c. Allows each program in turn to use the memory

d. Does not work with overlaying

13. Which of the following operating does not implement multitasking truly?

a. Windows 98

b. Windows NT

c. Windows XP

d. MS DOS

Correct Answer: d

14. What is the name of the latest server operating system developed by Microsoft?

a. Windows NT

b. Windows 2000

c. Windows XP

d. Windows 2003

Correct Answer: d

15. Where do you find user.dat?

a. C:\windows

b. C:\windows\system32

c. C:\windows\system

d. C:\

Correct Answer: a

16. MSD.exe does not have information on:

a. Cache

b. Video

c. Operating System

d. Com or port

1. Which file in MSDOS contain internal command that are loaded during booting process?

a. Io.sys

b. Msdos.sys

c. Command.com

d. Config.sys

Correct Answer: c

 2. Which is the valid filename assign in MS-DOS?

a. Ram*.txt

b. Ram?.doc

c. Ram_$.txt

d. None of above

Correct Answer: c

3. Which is valid extension that user creates on operating system?

a. Exe

b. Com

c. Sys

d. Bat

Correct Answer: d

4. Which of the following file names are invalid in MSDOS?

a. MYFILE.DOS

b. CHECK$.(1)

c. Verified.###

d. Qwerty.1?3

Correct Answer: d

5. Which of the following statements in regard to directories is false?

a. Directories can exist inside directories

b. The root directory is always at the highest level

c. Directories with files can be deleted

d. Directories cannot be renamed

Correct Answer: d

6. Which of the following statements is true in regard to diskcopy?

a. Copy and discopy are same

b. Discopy is a built in command in dos

c. Diskcopy can be used on hard disks

d. Diskcopy can be used with a floppy and a hard disk

Correct Answer: c

 7. Which switch should be used in the DIR command to view files in all directories?

a. /p

b. /w

c. /s

d. /l

Correct Answer: c

 8. Which type of command in DOS needs additional files for their execution?

a. Internal commands

b. External commands

c. Batch commands

d. Redirectors

9. Which was the last version of MSDOS that was released separately?

a. 5.0

b. 6.0

c. 6.11

d. 6.22

10. While working with MS-DOS which command is used to change the extension of all filenames ending with .txt to .doc?

a. Ren *.doc *.txt

b. Ren *.txt *.doc

c. Ren file.doc file.txt

d. Ren a: *.doc *.txt

11. While working with MS-DOS which command is used to combine file1 plus file2 into new file named file3?

a. Copy file3 file1+file2

b. Copy file1+file2 file3

c. Copy file1+file2+file3

d. Copy file2 file1+file3

12. While working with MS-DOS which command is used to copy all files with extension .txt into one file named all.txt?

a. Copy a: *.txt

b. Copy *.txt a:

c. Copy *.txt c:

d. Copy *.txt all.txt

Correct Answer: d

13. While working with MS-DOS, which command is used to more file from one directory to another?

a. Rename

b. Copy

c. Move

d. Cp

14. While working with MS-DOS, which command is used to rename a file named file1.doc to file2.doc from a different directory called dir1?

a. Ren2.doc \dir\file1.doc

b. Ren file1.doc file2.doc

c. Ren .doc\dir\.doc

d. Ren \dir1\file1.doc file2.doc

15. While working with which command is used to copy all files from the currently logged drive and directory with the extension .txt to the drive a

a. Copy a. *.txt

b. Copy *.txt a:

c. Copy *.txt c:

d. Copy *.txt all.txt

16. Which command in DOS can be used to recover accidentally deleted files?

a. UNDELETE

b. DELETE/CANCEL

c. RESTORE

d. RECOVER

17. Which command is used to set a name to a disk in DOS?

a. VOLUME

b. VOL

c. LABEL

d. DISKLABEL

18. Which of the following command display the name of files in sorted order?

a. Dir/o:n

b. Dir/so

c. Dir/an

d. Dir/ah

19. Which command displays the list of all previous commands entered by the used?

a. COMMANDS/ALL

b. KEYDOS

c. DOSKEY

d. DIR/ALL

1. Which statement is valid about “TIME” command?

a. Time command is used to display and allow changes to the system time

b. Time format can be changed by changing in country setting in config.sys file

c. MS DOS displays the time in 12-hour or 24-hour format

d. All of above

Correct Answer: d

2. Which command is used to see the sub-directory structure of drive?

a. Tree

b. List

c. Subdir

d. Subtree

3. Which command is used to display the subdirectory structure of the currently logged drive and pause the screen display after each screen full of the information?

a. Tree

b. Deltree/f

c. Dir | more

d. Tree | more

4. Which command is used to provide access to files located in other directories or disks?

a. Tree

b. Path

c. Dir

d. Cd

5. you can copy command.com to your disk from hard disk

a. true

b. false

6. Which command is used to see the contents of a file?

a. Type

b. Copy

c. Ed

d. None of above

7. Which command is used to see the disk volume label?

a. Ver

b. Vol

c. Version

d. Volume

8. Which command is used to see the version?

a. Version

b. Ver

c. Verson

d. None of above

9. What is the name of the batch file that is automatically run when MSDOS is booted?

a. Run.bat

b. Config.sys

c. Config.bat

d. Autoexec.bat

10. What is the switch that is used to make sure that the copy command copied files correctly

a. /a

b. /c

c. /s

d. /v

11. What will be the output of the command prompt $l$p$g?

a. <c:\>

b. C:\>

c. C:\>>

d. C:<\>

12. Which among the following are the best tools for fixing errors on disks?

a. Fdisk

b. Scandisk

c. Chkdsk

d. Fixdsk

13. Which command can be used to create the disk’s tracks and sectors?

a. Fdisk

b. Format

c. Chkdsk

d. Attrib

14. Which command in DOS can be used to recover accidentally deleted files?

a. UNDELETE

b. DELETE/CANCEL

c. RESTORE

d. RECOVER

15. Which command in DOS is used to display the version of MSDOS?

a. VERSION

b. VERIFY

c. VER

d. VERSN

16. Which command is used to copy all files from drive a with extension .txt to the currently logged drive and directory?

a. Copy a. *.txt

b. Copy *.txt a:

c. Copy *.txt c:

d. Copy *.txt all.txt

17. Which command is used to create root directory and FAT on disk?

a. Chkdsk

b. Command.com

c. Format

d. Fat

18. Which command is used to delete all the files extension .txt on the current drive and directory?

a. Del .txt

b. Erase .txt

c. Del *.txt

d. Del *.*/p

19. Which command is used to delete all the files in the root directory of drive a

a. A:\del

b. Del *.* a:

c. Del a:\

d. Erase *.*

Correct Answer: c

20. Which command is used to display a list of deleted files that DOS can undelete?

a. Undelete *.*

b. Undelete/all

c. Undelete/list

d. None of the above

21. Which command is used to undelete delete a bunch of files with extension doc that you have just deleted

a. Undelete

b. Undelete *.doc

c. Undelete/all

d. All of the above

21. DEL command is used to

a. Delete files

b. Delete directory

c. Delete labels

d. Delete contents of file

22. Which command be used to ask you to confirm that you want to delete the directory?

a. Deltree

b. Deltree/f

c. Del *.*/p

d. Erase *.*

23. Which statement is correct?

a. Directories can be kept inside a file

b. Files can not be kept inside a directory

c. 1 millisec = 10 ^ 3 sec

d. None of above

24. CHKDSK can be used to find

a. Disk’s bad portion

b. Occupied space

c. Free space

d. All of above

25. DIR command is used to

a. Display a list of files in a directory

b. Display contents of files in directory

c. Display type of files in a sub directory

d. All of above

26. The deleted file in MS-DOS can be recovered if you use the command mention below immediately, the command is:

a. DO NOT DELETE

b. NO DELETE

c. UNDELETE

d. ONDELETE

27 To copy the file command.com from drive c: to drive a:

a. Drive c: copy drive a:\command.com

b. C:A: copy command.com

c. Copy c:\command.com a:

d. Both b and c

28. While working with MS-DOS which key is used to get the p[revious command used:

a. F3

b. F1

c. F6

d. F9

29. FAT stands for

a. File Accomodation Table

b. File Access Tape

c. File Allocation Table

d. File Activity Table

30. xcopy command can copy

a. individual files or group of files

b. directories including subdirectories

c. to diskette of a different capacity

d. all of above

31. Which command is used to make a new directory?

a. Md

b. Cd

c. Rd

d. None of above

32. Full form of MS-DOS is

a. Micro System Disk Operating System

b. Micro Simple Disk Operating System

c. Micro Soft Disk Operating System

d. Micro Sort Disk Operating System

33. Operating System is like a

a. Parliament

b. Secretary

c. Government

d. None of the above

34. Format command is used to

a. Prepare a blank disk

b. Create a new blank disk from a used one

c. Both of above

d. None of above

35. The following command set is correct according to their function

a. RD can MD

b. DEL and ERASE

c. CD and RD

d. COPY and RENAME

36. Which command is used to change the file name?

a. Ren

b. Rename

c. Both of above

d. None of above

37. While working with MS-DOS, which command is used to copying the files to transfer from one PC to another one?

a. Rename

b. Path

c. Dir

38. RESTORE command is used to

a. Restore files from disks made using the BACKUP command

b. Restore files which are deleted

c. Restore files from recycle bin

d. Restore files which are deleted recently

39. The vol command is used to

a. see the value of list

b. see the veriety of language

c. see the disk volume label

d. see the volume of largest

40. In MS-DOS you can use small or capital letter of combination of both to enter a command but internally MS-DOS work with.

a. Small letter

b. Capital letter

c. Both a and b

d. None of above

41. The maximum length in DOS commands is

a. 80 chars

b. 127 chars

c. 100 chars

d. 8 chars

42. The time command is used to display _____ time.

a. US time

b. Greenwich Mean Time

c. Julian Time

d. System Time

1. An entire path name, consisting of several sub-directory names can contain upto

a. 13 character

b. 36 character

c. 63 character

d. 53 character

2. In which year the first operating system was developed

a. 1910

b. 1940

c. 1950

d. 1980

3. MS-DOS developed in

a. 1991

b. 1984

c. 1971

d. 1961

4. Maximum length of DOS command using any optional parameter is

a. 26 characters

b. 87 characters

c. 127 characters

d. None of above

Correct Answer: c

5. In which version of DOS. CHKDSK command has been changed to SCANDISK?

a. 5.0

b. 6.2

c. 6.0

d. 6.2

Correct Answer: d

6. CHKDSK command is used to

a. Analyze the hard disk error

b. Diagnose the hard disk error

c. Report the status of files on disk

d. All of the above

7. Which file is the batch file that is read while booting a computer?

a. Autoexec.bat

b. Auto-batch

c. Autoexecutive.bat

d. Auto.bat

8. Which command is used to backup in DOS 6+ Version

a. BACKUP

b. MSBACKUP

c. MSBACKEDUP

d. All of the above

9. Copy and Xcopy are same in the sense

a. Both are internal command of DOS

b. Both are external commands of DOS

c. Both can be used to copy file or group of files

d. Both a and b

44. Which command be used to clear the screen and display the operating system prompt on the first line of the display?

a. Cd

b. Md

c. Rename

d. cls

10. Which command is used to clear the screen

a. Cls

b. Clear

c. Clscreen

d. All of above

11. internal command in Dos are

a. Cls, rd label

b. Dir, ren, sys

c. Time, type, dir

d. Del, disk copy, label

12. Which command is used to copy files?

a. Copy

b. Diskcopy

c. Type

d. All of the above

13. To copy the hidden system files of DOS to another disk you can use the command

a. Copy

b. Ren

c. Sys

d. Diskcopy

14. Disk copy command in DOS is used to

a. Copy a file

b. Copy contents of one floppy disk to another

c. Copy contents of CD-ROM to another

d. All of the above

15. SYS command is used to

a. Copy DOS system files to new disk

b. Copy DOS configuration files to a new disk

c. Update the DOS system files

d. None of above

16. The command used to copy a file named temp.doc from drive C: to drive A: is

a. Copy temp.doc to a:

b. Copy c:\temp.doc a:

c. Copy c: a:

d. Copy temp a: c:

17. External command in DOS are

a. Copy, edit, sys, format

b. Edit, sys, chkdsk

c. Chkdsk, prompt, date

d. Sys, ver, vol

18. Which keys can be pressed quit without saving in DOS

a. Ctrl + A

b. Ctrl + B

c. Ctrl + C

d. Ctrl + D

Correct Answer: c

19. Which command is used to get the current date only?

a. Date

b. Time

c. Second

d. All of the above

20. Generally, the DATE is entered in the form

a. DD-YY-MM

b. YY-DD-MM

c. MM-YY-DD

d. MM-DD-YY

11.    Which command displays all the files having the same name but different extensions?

a.    Dir filename.*

b.    Dir filename.ext

c.    Dir *.sys

d.    Dir *.ext

Explanation: * is a wild card character that stands for all any character. When you specify filename.*, it meant filename should be specified one but extension can be any. Second option lists only the specified filename.exe and third and fourth commands lists all files with sys extension and specified extension.

12.    Which command displays only file and directory names without size, date and time information?

a.    Dir/w

b.    Dir a:

c.    Dir /b

d.    Dir /s

Explanation: dir/b command barely lists the names of files and directories without any other information like size, date, time etc.

13.    Which command displays comma for thousand separating on file size while listing?

a.    Dir/w

b.    Dir/s

c.    Dir/b

d.    Dir/c

Correct Answer: d. Dir/c

Explanation: Using comma for separating thousand in file size is by default on. You can use dir/-c to remove comma from the listing. /C stands for comma.

14.    Which command is used to display all the files having the (.exe) extension but different filename?

a.    Dir filename.*

b.    Dir filename.ext

c.    Dir *.sys

d.    Dir *.ext

15.    Which command should be used to display all files within the specified subordinate directory of the subdirectory?

a.    Dir \ pathname

b.    Dir \ pathname\pathname

c.    Dir / ch

d.    Dir \pathname\filename

16.    Which command displays the directory list including files in tree structure?

a.    Dir/s/f

b.    Tree/f

c.    Tree/s/f

d.    Dir/f

17.    Which command will be used to display a file within the specified directory of pathname?

a.    Dir \pathname

b.    Dir \pathname\pathname

c.    Dir/ch

d.    Dir \pathname\filename

18.    Which command creates a directory or subdirectory?

a.    Dir

b.    Mkdir

c.    Md

d.    Both b and c

19.    Which command displays current directory name or change from one to another?

a.    Chdir

b.    Cd

c.    Mkdir

d.    Both a and b

20.Which command is used to delete the directory that is empty?

a.    Del *.*

b.    RD

c.    Erase

d.    MD

1.    In MS-Dos 6.22, which part identifies the product uniquely
a.    MS

b.    DOS

c.    Ms-DOS

d.    6.22

2.    In Ms-Dos what command you will use to display system date?

a.    Date command

b.    Ver command

c.    Disk command

d.    Format command

3.    While working with Ms-Dos which command transfers a specific file from one disk to another?

a.    Copy

b.    Diskcopy

c.    Time

d.    Rename

4.    If you don’t know the current time, which command will you use to display

a.    Copy

b.    Ver

c.    Time

d.    Format

6.    Each time you turn on your computer, it will check on the control file

a.    Command.com, io.sys

b.    Command.com, date.com, dir.com

c.    Command.com, io.sys, msdos.sys

d.    Chkdsk.exe

7.    If you need to duplicate the entire disk, which command will you use?

a.    Copy

b.    Diskcopy

c.    Chkdsk

d.    Format

8.    Which of the following extensions suggest that the file is a backup copy

a.    Bak

b.    Bas

c.    Com

d.    Txt

9.    Which command lists the contents of current directory of a disk

a.    Copy

b.    Tree

c.    Cd

d.    Dir

10.Only filenames and extensions are to be displayed in wide format, which command you’ll use?

a.    Dir/w

b.    Dir a:

c.    Dir/s

d.    Dir/b

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